Hebrews 1:1-2

Joshua Perez

11/9/2024

"In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe. The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven. " (Hebrews 1:1-3 NIV)

Since most translators are Trinitarian, they often translate this passage in such a way that Yeshua is called the person "through whom" God created the universe (the heavens and the earth). However, this is not a necessary reading of the text.

1. The Greek word that most translations render as "universe" or "world" is the plural aionas (αἰῶνας). According to Thayer's Greek Lexicon, this word refers to "unbroken age, perpetuity of time, eternity, period of time, age, ages." It should be properly translated as "ages" (time periods), as it does not refer to the universe or the earth. Other Greek words, such as kosmos (κόσμος) or oikoumene (οἰκουμένη), specifically refer to the earth or universe, and we see these terms in various verses:

"And the great dragon was thrown down, the serpent of old who is called the devil and Satan, who deceives the whole world (oikoumene); he was thrown down to the earth, and his angels were thrown down with him" (Revelation 12:9)

"For God so loved the world (kosmos), that He gave His only Son, so that everyone who believes in Him will not perish, but have eternal life" (John 3:16)

However, aion (or its plural aionas) is not the correct word for referring to the universe or the earth. It should be rendered as "ages," referring to time periods. Several translations, such as the REV and the YLT, reflect this more accurate understanding of the Greek term.

"in these last days did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He did make the ages; " (YLT)

"has at the end of these days spoken to us by His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He has given form to the ages," (REV)

Verse 2 also states that God appointed Jesus as heir of all things. Being the "heir" of something implies that you are not the original owner or creator of it. The Father is not the "heir" or "inheritor" of creation; He is the source of it. If Jesus were the creator of the heavens and the earth, He could not legally become the heir of it. However, because the Father alone created, He has the authority to appoint Jesus over the work of His hands.

"The Amen, the faithful and true Witness, the Ruler over the creation of God, says this" Revelation 3:14 

"You(speaking to the Father) have made him(Jesus) for a little while lower than the angels; you have crowned him with glory and honor, and have appointed him over the works of Your hands" Hebrews 2:7 

2. So, what ages or time periods did God create through Jesus Christ? The immediate preceding and proceeding context answers this question. Verses 1-2 of Hebrews chapter 1 clearly state:

"In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son"

If it were true that Yeshua is the eternal God of Israel, He would have been active in the lives of the Jewish people before the incarnation. For this reason, many Trinitarians interpret the Angel of the Lord to be a Christophony (the pre-incarnate Jesus). However, God spoke through the Angel of the Lord many times in the Old Testament (Exodus 3:2-4; Judges 2:1-2; Zechariah 1:12-13). This would make the author of Hebrews' statement incorrect, as he asserts that only now, in these last days, is God speaking to us through His Son. Therefore, the author of Hebrews is clearly stating that Yeshua is not co-eternal with God nor pre-existent. It is only in these last days that He is being used by Hashem, solidifying the context of Hebrews chapter 1 as referring to the exalted Jesus after His death, burial, and resurrection (i.e., after God granted Him all authority in heaven and on earth - Matthew 28:18).

Verse 3 of Hebrews 1 also states:

"And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature, and upholds all things by the word of His power. When He had made purification of sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high" Hebrews 1:3 

Similarly here, many incredible statements are made about the man Jesus. But as is clearly stated at the end of verse 3, these statements are true in light of the fact that, "He had made purification of sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high." This further clarifies that, in this context, we are speaking of the post-resurrection and exalted Jesus. Verse 4 says:

"Having become as much better than the angels, as He has inherited a more excellent name than they" Hebrews 1:4 

It would be an absurd argument to suggest that someone who is essentially co-eternal and co-equal with YHWH has recently become better than angels. Hashem is the almighty and supreme God, with no equals and above all. If Jesus were truly God, writing a chapter-long exegetical case in verses 5-14 to prove that Jesus is greater than angels would be pointless. You would only need to prove that Jesus is YHWH, which would automatically make Him above the angels. But the author never attempts to prove such a thing.

As is clearly displayed in his selection of proof texts, the author cites several Davidic kingly promises and compares them to statements made about the angels, showing how God's exalted king is superior to them. However, notice that Jesus has inherited a name more excellent than the angels, implying He did not always possess it. This status was given to Him by God, because of the obedient life He lived, culminating in His death on the cross. Thus, as is made clear in the context of Hebrews chapter 1, God, through the man Jesus, made the "ages" (the time periods during and after His exaltation).

3. In what ways has Jesus "created" the ages during and after His exaltation? As Paul explains in Colossians 1:15-20, God, through Jesus, created a new age, bringing reconciliation to all things in heaven and on earth through the blood shed on the cross (please see our article on Colossians 1:15-20). Furthermore, in Revelation 19-20:5, we read about Yeshua returning to earth, conquering Jerusalem, and bringing about an "age" (1000 years) of world peace. Finally, in Revelation 21, we read about a new heaven and a new earth being formed, where God establishes His eternal tabernacle with man, as sin and death are finally defeated—something only made possible due to Jesus' death on the cross (1 Corinthians 15:25-26).

In this way, Jesus, through the empowerment of God, has created the "ages" during and after His exaltation. Isaiah 9:6 also teaches a similar message, prophesying concerning Yeshua that He will be called the "Father of the coming eternal age" (please see our article on Isaiah 9:6).

4. Some may insist that the "ages" God created through Yeshua include those during the Genesis creation, as the same Greek word aionas is used in the book of Hebrews in that context:

"By faith we understand that the ages (aionas) were as created by the word of God, so that what is seen was not made out of things which are visible" (Hebrews 11:3)

This is a fair objection, and I will now explore how the author can state this without him implying Jesus physically pre-existed his birth. 

Since the author has already stated that only in these last days is God speaking through his son, he wouldn't than contradict himself in the next sentence by saying Jesus was the author of the Genesis creation. As established in the prologue of John chapter 1, God created everything using his word, or wisdom (his attribute of creative speech - please see our article on John 1:1-3). This attribute was not a person or a being, as it is not seperate to God. It's one of his divine attributes. This attribute "became flesh" (was most fully revealed in) the man Christ Jesus, and therefore, grants him the symbolic title of "The Word" or "The Wisdom" of God. 

"He is clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and His name is called the Word of God" (Revelation 19:13 NASB)

"But to those who are the called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God" (1 Corinthians 1:24 NASB)

Often times names and titles in the Bible are not literal, and do not connote a 1:1 equivalency. For example, "Elijah" in Hebrew is Eliyahu, and it literally means "God Yah". Obviously, Elijah is not God. His name symbolizes the culture of devout service to Hashem he was born in to. Therefore, Jesus being called "The Word" or "The Wisdom" of God does not literally make him that divine attribute of Hashem. 

If we were to grant that the "ages" of Hebrews 1:2 include the Genesis creation, the author of Hebrews could be employing a metonym to relay the same message as the prologue of John 1:1-3. A metonym is a figure of speech where one word or phrase is substituted with another that is closely associated with it. For example, substituting "the crown" for "the queen of England". In this case, the author could be substituting God's word/wisdom with "Jesus", as the two are closely linked due to that attribute becoming revealed and incarnate in him. 

The aforementioned scenario (symbolically substituting God's word/wisdom with Jesus) has actually already been done in parallel accounts in the synoptic gospels when Jesus rebukes the Jews.

"For this reason I am sending you prophets, wise men, and scribes; some of them you will kill and crucify, and some of them you will flog in your synagogues and persecute from city to city" (Matthew 23:34 NASB).

"For this reason also the wisdom of God said, ‘I will send them prophets and apostles, and some of them they will kill, and some they will persecute’" (Luke 11:49 NASB).

Utilizing this figure of speech, the author may be attempting to display how God's divine attribute of wisdom by which he created "the ages" was fully revealed in Jesus (much like the prologue of John chapter 1). This concept of Wisdom Christology is also alluded to in verse 3 of the very same chapter which reads:

"The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word" (Hebrews 1:3)

Appearing to be a reference to Wisdom of Solomon 7:26:

"For she (God's wisdom) is a reflection of eternal light, a spotless mirror of the working of God, and an image of His goodness" (Wisdom of Solomon 7:26)

This would perfectly fit into the authors subject of Hebrews 1, building the frame for his argument that Jesus is far superior to the angels. As which of the angels at any time has the very finite expression of God been revealed in?