Joshua Perez

2/26/2025

One of the greatest features of the English language is the use of capitalization. They signify the start of sentences, certain proper nouns and adjectives, and names of people or places. Unlike English, however, Hebrew Greek and Aramaic (the biblical languages) do not have capitalization. This simple fact is one of the reasons there is debate in the Biblical world pertaining to whether Jesus is God, or a man highly exalted by God. 

Origin of the word "God"

The English word "God" comes from the Proto-Germanic word guda, which means to call upon or invoke [1]. However in our English bibles, it is the translation of several Hebrew and Greek words. In Hebrew, elohim, el, and eloah are all translated as "God" in English [2]. In Greek, theos and theon are translated as God [3]. 

Use of "God" in the Bible

Evidently, the term God's primary meaning and usage in scripture is referring to Hashem, the patron deity of Israel.

“For I am the Lord (YHWH) your God, who upholds your right hand, Who says to you, ‘Do not fear, I will help you.’" (Isaiah 41:13)

Furthermore, he is defined in scripture as being only one person, the Father.

“I am the Lord (YHWH), and there is no other; Besides Me there is no God. (Isaiah 45:5)

"Hear, Israel! The Lord is our God, the Lord is one " (Deut. 6:4 NASB)

"Jesus answered, The foremost is, 'Hear, Israel! The Lord is our God, the Lord is one '" (Mark 12:29) 

"Yet for us there is only one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him" (1 Cor. 8:6 NASB) 

"Now a mediator is not for one party only; but God is only one " (Gal. 3:20 NASB)

"One God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all" (Eph. 4:6 NASB)

The Father is the primary referent of the title "God", however he is not the only referent. There are others in Scripture, who are not YHWH, who have been given this title. This simple fact displays that the title has a usage to the highest degree (that being YHWH), and a second usage that doesn't imply divinity. God, much like other titles such as Lord or King of Kings, when applied to the Father are being used in the absolute highest sense. However, this does not undermine the fact that these same titles have been applied to human beings [4]. This does not imply that these humans are divine is the same sense the one true God is, but it does imply these humans are in an exalted status. To make a distinction between the use of these titles when applied to God vs. men, the use of capitalization can be helpful. For example, we can use "Lord" when referring to the Almighty, and "lord" when referring to men with authority. We will remember this principal when reviewing "God"'s usage in the Old and New Testament.

Old Testament

In Genesis 6, it states:

"1 Now it came about, when men began to multiply on the face of the land, and daughters were born to them, 2 that the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were beautiful; and they took wives for themselves, whomever they chose." (Genesis 6:1-2 NASB)

The term in question is "sons of God", which in Hebrew is bnei ha'elohim. What's peculiar about this term is the presence of the definite article ha in Hebrew, meaning in English it should properly read "sons of the elohim". Job 38:7 records the "sons of God" (angels) shouting for joy while God created the world, however here the definite article isn't present, as it simply reads bnei elohim.  The use of the definite article in Genesis 6:2 is fairly uncommon in Scripture when YHWH is being referenced, therefore it is logical to conclude elohim has another usage here. Rashi's commentary on this passage, as well as the Midrash Rabbah explain this well:

"The sons of princes and rulers (Genesis Rabbah 26:15)....Wherever the word אלהים occurs in the Scriptures it signifies authority" (Rashi on Genesis 6:2)

“The children of the great men [benei haelohim] saw the daughters of man, that they were fair, and they took for themselves wives, from whomever they chose”.The children of the great men [benei haelohim] saw,” Rabbi Shimon ben Yoḥai called them [when translating this verse into Aramaic] “the children of judges.” Rabbi Shimon ben Yoḥai used to curse anyone who would call them [translating the words literally, as] “children of god.” (Bereshit Rabbah 26:5)

As these Rabbis explain, elohim here is being used to describe the rulers and judges in those days, of whos children took the daughters of men to marry. If one wishes to translate Genesis 6:2 literally, you could say "the sons of the gods" took the daughters of men for wives, using a lowercase "g" to signify "god" merely implies authority. 

Another example is found in Exodus, when God tells Moses concerning Aaron:

"16 Moreover, he shall speak for you to the people; and he will be as a mouth for you and you will be as God to him" (Exodus 4:16 NASB)

And he says to Moses concerning Pharaoh:

"1 Then the Lord said to Moses, “See, I make you as God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron shall be your prophet." (Exodus 7:1 NASB)

Here elohim is being used to describe Moses, however contrary to how the NASB renders it; "as" isn't present in the Hebrew for either of these verses. Hashem is literally telling Moses he will be God to Aaron and Pharaoh. These are some of the primary proof texts that scholars derive the idea that "God" can be used to describe men with authority; like the kind Moses had over Pharaoh. The Brown Drivers Briggs defines the term elohim as:

"rulers, judges, either as divine representatives at sacred places or as reflecting divine majesty and power...divine ones, superhuman beings including God and angels"

The term elohim does not always connote divinity, it does however always connote authority. This is why context is king.

Later in Exodus God states:

"Then his master must bring him before the judges. He will take him to the door or doorpost, and his master will pierce his ear with an awl, and he will serve his master for life" (Exodus 21:6 HCSB)

"If the thief is not caught, then the owner of the house shall appear before the judges, to determine whether he laid his hands on his neighbor’s property" (Exodus 22:8 NASB)

"For every breach of trust, whether it is for an ox, a donkey, a sheep, clothing, or for any lost item about which one says, ‘This is it,’ the case of both parties shall come before the judges; he whom the judges condemn shall pay double to his neighbor" (Exodus 22:9 NASB)

In all three of these verses, "judges" is being translated from the Hebrew word elohim. The Sanhedrin receives direct divine authority from God to rule over Israel (Ex.18:13-26; Num. 11:16-17; Deut. 16:18-20; Deut. 17:8-13), displaying that here elohim functions as a title describing their authority, not divinity. You could rightfully call the Sanhedrin "the gods" using a lowercase "g", without implying there is more than one Almighty, or other persons besides the Father. 

Another example of the use of "god" is in Psalm 45:6-7, which reads:

" 6 Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; A scepter of uprightness is the scepter of Your kingdom.7 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You with the oil of joy above Your fellows." (Psalm 45:6-7)

The preface to Psalm 45 states:

"For the choir director; according to the Shoshannim. A Maskil of the sons of Korah, a song of love: My heart overflows with a good theme; I address my verses to the King; my tongue is the pen of a ready writer" (Psalm 45:1, NASB)

This Psalm is called "a song of love," and as the body of the text explains, it describes a real human king and his bride.

"My heart overflows with a good theme; I address my verses to the King; my tongue is the pen of a ready writer." (Psalms 45:1 NASB)

The Psalmist addresses the King of Israel and describes both him and his bride, explicitly portraying them as human beings (Psalm 45:1, 5, 13, 15).  For example, he notes that the king's wife is from Tyre, lives with the king in an ivory palace, and is instructed to forget her own people and her father's house

"All Your garments are fragrant with myrrh and aloes and cassia; Out of ivory palaces stringed instruments have made You glad. Kings' daughters are among Your noble ladies; At Your right hand stands the queen in gold from Ophir. Listen, O daughter, give attention and incline your ear: Forget your people and your father's house; Then the King will desire your beauty. Because He is your Lord, bow down to Him. The daughter of Tyre will come with a gift; The rich among the people will entreat your favor" (Psalm 45:8-12 NASB)

This demonstrates that the Psalm in it's originally context was referring to the reigning king of Israel at that time, who was evidently a man. Many reading this may interject by pointing out the author of Hebrews said the Psalm was about Jesus (Hebrews 1:8-9), however after understanding how the authors of the N.T. use Old testament passages in a non-literal sense, this is no issue (see our article on Hebrews 1:8-9). Jesus never had a wife or lived in an ivory house; so clearly, this Psalm isn't about him.

Never once does the Psalmist suggest that this king of Israel was a "God-man", or was divine in the sense the one true God is. Rather, the author emphasizes that the king is blessed by God:

"You are fairer than the sons of men; grace is poured upon Your lips; therefore God has blessed You forever" (Psalms 45:2)

The verses in question are verses 6-7, where the Psalmist calls the King "God".

"Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; A scepter of uprightness is the scepter of Your kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You with the oil of joy above Your fellows." (Psalm 45:6-7)

It is clear here that "God" is again being used in a lesser sense, as the Psalmist immediately follows up his statement by saying the King was anointed by his God. An almighty "God" with an almighty God above them is contradictory in the same way saying you've travelled farther north than the north pole is. God by necessity is the highest power. Therefore, the king of Israel being called "god" implies the king has authority, not divinity. 

In Psalm 82 we get another foundational text for supporting the argument that "god" can be used to refer to human beings with authority:

"A Psalm of Asaph. 1 God takes His stand in His own congregation; He judges in the midst of the rulers. 2 How long will you judge unjustly And show partiality to the wicked? Selah. 3 Vindicate the weak and fatherless; Do justice to the afflicted and destitute. 4 Rescue the weak and needy; Deliver them out of the hand of the wicked. 5 They do not know nor do they understand; They walk about in darkness; All the foundations of the earth are shaken. 6 I said, “You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High. 7 “Nevertheless you will die like men And fall like any one of the princes.” 8 Arise, O God, judge the earth! For it is You who possesses all the nations." (Psalm 82)

Psalm 82 has two primary interpretations among scholars. Some believe it refers to God standing in the midst of his angelic heavenly host (1 King. 22:19; Job 1:6; Isaiah 6:1-2). However, others view the psalm as a depiction of God standing among the great Sanhedrin in the land of Israel. As established earlier in this article, the judges that comprised the Sanhedrin are called "gods" (elohim) numerous times in the Torah. Highly suggesting that the "gods" being referred to here are once again the judges of Israel, especially considering God says they were judging (albeit unjustly). The Benson Bible commentary provides a great perspective of this.

"By gods or, the mighty, he understands kings, or other chief rulers, judges, and magistrates, called gods below, Psalm 82:6; Exodus 12:12; Exodus 22:28. compared with Psalm 138:1, and John 10:35. They are called gods, because they have their power and commission from God, and act as his deputies, in his name and stead, and must give an account to him of their conduct in their high office and station." 

Those who are empowered by God to do his will and serve as qualified agents can rightfully be called "god" based on the fact that they represent him.

A final example of this is found in Psalm 138:

"1 I will give You thanks with all my heart; I will sing praises to You before the gods (elohim). 2 I will bow down toward Your holy temple And give thanks to Your name for Your lovingkindness and Your truth; For You have magnified Your word according to all Your name." (Psalm 138:1-2 NASB)

Due to the fact that earlier in the Psalms the Great Sanhedrin is referred to as "the gods", it is likely that this is being done here again. Especially considering that immediately after that statement, he also says he will bow down toward the holy temple (another establishment in the holy land). 

Before moving on to the New Testament, I would like to note that in all of the aforementioned uses of "god" in the Tanakh, the Septuagint (LXX) uses theos or a derivative of it when translating it into Greek. This is relevant as the New Testament was solely written in Greek, therefore the use of theos functions the same as elohim would in Hebrew. 

New Testament:

The first time we clearly see this alternative understanding of "god" in the N.T. is in John 10:31-36, where Yeshua actually uses Psalm 82 as a proof text to rebut the notion that he was making himself out to be Almighty God.

"31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” 33 The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’? 35 If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), 36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? " (John 10:31-36 NASB)

Yeshua's contemporaries incorrectly asserted that he was making himself out to be God (due to him making statements that he was the ultimate representative of the Father). In response to this, he quotes Psalm 82 where the judges of Israel (other representatives of Hashem) are themselves called "gods". If it not blasphemy to call the judges (human beings who received God's word) "gods", then it cannot be blasphemy for Yeshua to say that he is the son of God (which implies inferiority and a clear distinction between beings). This passage is one of the best proof texts in support of Unitarianism; as we get a direct instance of someone claiming Yeshua was divine in the sense the one true God is, and him denying it by redirecting them to a place in scripture where other humans were exalted by God, just like he was [5].

In the book of Acts there are two more examples of "god" being used in a lesser sense. The first being the peoples proclamation after King Herod gave a speech.

"The people kept crying out, 'The voice of a god and not of a man!' And immediately an angel of the Lord struck him because he did not give God the glory, and he was eaten by worms and died" (Acts 12:22-23 NASB).

In Acts 12:22-23 King Herod Agrippa 1 had just finished given a speech to a large crown. After which, they proclaimed that this was the voice of "a god". In this example, being "a god" was in the context of the Greco-Roman polytheistic culture. They may have believed King Herod possessed some sort of divinity; however they were certainly incorrect as displayed by God's judgement immediately after. 

In the second example, people made the same claim about Paul after he managed to survive a poisonous viper bite. 

"But they were expecting that he was about to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But after they had waited a long time and had seen nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and began to say that he was a god" (Acts 28:6 NASB).

Much like Jesus' contemporaries in John 10:31-36, they assumed that a miracle being done by man must mean that said man was divine (ontologically). However, this notion has been proven to be untrue. God is able to empower man with authority to do all things typically associated with being fully divine; granting said person the title of "god".

"8 But when the crowds saw this, they were awestruck, and glorified God, who had given such authority to men." (Matthew 9:8 NASB)

The title "god" being applied to Jesus

In the N.T., there are a total of eight places where some scholars believe the title "god" (theos) is being applied to Jesus. It is important to note that all eight of these passages are challenged by many Unitarians who argue that the term "god" is not being applied to Jesus at all; due to issues with the Greek text, it's translation, or interpretation. However, in this section of the article I will be charitable and grant the reading of the eight texts that do apply "god" (theos) to Jesus. Of which, I will display that even then "god" is not being used in the highest sense; but rather the usage outlined earlier in this article. 

John 1:1

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1 NASB)

If this text is read in the manner Trinitarians propose (the first reference to "God" being the Father, and the word (logos) being the divine spirit of the pre-incarnate Jesus). Than John would still be saying that the Father is the ultimate source of the cosmos, while Jesus is merely the instrument through which God created it. 

"3 All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made." (John 1:3)

Biblically speaking, being the ultimate source of creation is what it means to be God (Isaiah 44:24). Thus, John is not calling Jesus "God" in the highest sense. (Please see our article on John 1:1-3 for our specific view on this text).

John 1:18

"No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him" (John 1:18 NASB)

Building upon verses 1-3, God is said to be in a sense "un-seeable"; Jesus by definition is not, as he is the one visibly revealing the Father too us. An observable difference between Jesus and God displays he is not being called "God" in the highest sense.

It's crucial to note that there is a textual variant for John 1:18 where "only-begotten God" (monogenes theos) isn't present. In it's place, is "only-begotten son" (monogenes huion). (Full article covering our view WIP)

John 20:28

"Thomas answered and said to Him, 'My Lord and my God!'" (John 20:28 NASB)

Those reading the gospel of John would already know from chapter 10:31-36 (which is covered earlier in this article) that human beings can be referred to as "god" due to God empowering them with his message and authority. Jesus is explicitly stated to have been granted his authority by God [6], therefore it is perfectly acceptable to refer to him as "god". Furthermore, in verse 17 of the very same chapter Jesus says he has a God, the same God as us, the Father.

"17 Jesus said to her, “Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.’” (John 20:17)

A person who is the almighty God, who is in subjection to another person who is the almighty God is logically and biblical contradictory. Furthermore, John's main thesis at the conclusion of the book is not that Jesus is God, but rather God's son (the Christ/Messiah). 

"but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God;" (John 20:31)

The title "Christ" in Greek is christos, and it literally means "anointed one" [7]. Being "anointed" implies an anointer, who we know is God. Therefore, John is not calling Jesus "God" in the highest sense. Rather, someone anointed by God. (Full article covering our view WIP)

Romans 9:5

"5 Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of the Messiah, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen." (Romans 9:5 NIV)

In this passage, the "God over all" is a person with human ancestry (unlike God), and someone anointed by God (obviously, unlike God). Furthermore, earlier in the book Paul states that this man died (Romans 5:8, 17), which rules out him being the essentially immortal God (1 Tim 1:17,6:16; Rom. 1:23). Jesus being called "god over all" can be viewed in the same way Moses was said to be "god over pharaoh and Aaron" (Ex. 4:16, 7:1); positions which were said to have been granted to them by their God (Matt. 28:18). More specifically, the God who is clearly distinguished from Jesus in Paul's letter to Rome (Romans 1:1-8). (Please see our article on Romans 9:5 outlining our specific view)

1 Timothy 3:16

"16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifested in the flesh, Justified in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the Gentiles, Believed on in the world, Received up in glory." (1 Tim. 3:16 NKJV)

Paul opens his letter to Timothy by clearly distinguishing God and Jesus.

"1 Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus according to the commandment of God our Savior, and of Christ Jesus, who is our hope, 2 To Timothy, my true child in the faith: Grace, mercy and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Lord." (1 Tim. 1:1-2)

He is not being redundant by saying he was chosen to be an apostle by the commandment of God and of Christ Jesus. These are understood to be two seperate beings/persons: God, and the one anointed by God (Christ Jesus). So no, Paul is not calling Jesus "God" in the highest sense. 

It is crucial to note that there is a textual variant of 1 Timothy 3:16 where it says "he was manifested in the flesh", as opposed to "God was manifested in the flesh". (Full article covering our specific view WIP)

Titus 2:13

"looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus" (Titus 2:13)

In Paul's letter to Titus he clearly distinguishes God and Jesus, and does not conflate them into one and the same "being".

"1 Paul, a bond-servant of God and an apostle of Jesus Christ, for the faith of those chosen of God and the knowledge of the truth which is according to godliness, 2 in the hope of eternal life, which God, who cannot lie, promised long ages ago, 3 but at the proper time manifested, even His word, in the proclamation with which I was entrusted according to the commandment of God our Savior, 4 To Titus, my true child in a common faith: Grace and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Savior." (Titus 1:1-4)

In chapter two of this epistle, the supreme God is mentioned first (verse 11), and he is said to have brought salvation to all men. 

"11 For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men," (Titus 2:11)

Titus as the reader would of this letter would have understood this to be in refence to the death of Jesus; something the essentially immortal God cannot do. Therefore, Paul is not calling Jesus "God" in the highest sense. (Full article covering our view WIP)

2 Peter 1:1

"Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1)

In verse 2 of the same chapter Peter distinguishes God and Jesus, treating them as two seperate beings.

"2 Grace and peace be multiplied to you in the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord;"

Later in the chapter Peter calls Jesus God's son, and states that he pleased God. If Jesus were in fact God, then who would he be pleasing in a servant-master, father-son relationship?

"17 For when He received honor and glory from God the Father, such an utterance as this was made to Him by the Majestic Glory, “This is My beloved Son with whom I am well-pleased" (2 Peter 1:17)

Thus, Peter is in fact not calling Jesus "God" in the highest sense. (Full article outlining our specific view WIP)

Hebrews 1:8-9

"But of the Son He says, 'Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, And the righteous scepter is the scepter of His kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness above Your companions'" (Hebrews 1:8-9)

In this passage Jesus is explicitly stated to be the son of God, who is in a position over him. Furthermore he is said to have been anointed by his God (vs. 9), made superior than the angels by his God (vs. 4), and is said to have been "begotten" (created) by his God at one point in time (vs. 5). All of this displays that the author of Hebrews is not calling Jesus "God" in the highest sense. As, God by definition is the highest level of authority (Deut. 10:17; Psa. 95:3; Rev. 19:6) and is essentially eternal (Psa. 90:2; Ex. 3:14; Rev. 4:11). (See our article outlining our specific view on Hebrews 1:8-9)

Conclusion:

After an overview of "god"'s usage in scripture, it is clear than no author of the N.T. believed Jesus was divine in the same sense the one true God is. One thing I wish to make pertinently clear is that in no way are Unitarians attempting to "bring Jesus down a peg". On the contrary, we believe we are doing quite the opposite. As Christians, Jesus is meant to be the perfect example on how to live a righteous life. A being who is essentially all powerful and is physically without the ability to sin is certainly not a realistic or relevant example for us to emulate. However, a man who was truly made like us in every way, and was tempted as we were tempted yet knew no sin, is the perfect role model for us as believers. 

[1] https://www.etymonline.com/word/god

[2] Elohim: Gen. 1:1; Deut. 6:4. El: Num. 23:22; Psalm 68:35. Eloah: Deut. 32:15; Job 12:4

[3] Theos: John 3:16, Rom. 6:23

[4] 1 Timothy 6:16 ("king of kings" applied to God). Ezekiel 26:7; Daniel 2:37; Ezra 7:12 ("king of kings" being applied to men). Gen. 18:30; Psalm 8:1; Isaiah 6:1 ("Lord" being applied to God). Gen. 18:12; Gen. 24:9; Gen 42:30; 1 Sam. 25:27 ("lord" being applied to men)

[5] Yeshua's "divine" privilege's and prerogatives are said to have been granted to him by God:

• power (Mt 12:28; Lk 1:32, 4:15, 11:20-22; Jn 3:2, 35, 5:19, 30, 14:10; Acts 2:22, 10:37-38; Heb 2:4)

• authority (Mt 9:8, 28:18; Jn 5:18, 22-23; Acts 17:31; 1 Cor 1:3, 15:24-28; Rev 2:26-27)

• knowledge (Jn 7:16, 8:28, 16:30, 17:8, 14; Rev 1:1)

• forgiving sins (Mk 2:1-12; Mt 9:8; Jn 20:22-23)

• judging humanity (Acts 17:31)

• his word/message (John 8:26, 12:49, 14:24, 17:8)

[6] Ibid.

[7] Bauer's Greek Lexicon (entry for christos)